I am not well versed in property rights laws, but this seems messed up. Sure it is an anomaly of a situation, but why not do it 60 years ago when you expressed interest? They probably could not until recent changes.

Couldn't find any reading about their processes in the courts, even though this battle has been going on for quite some time.

Other links: http://wideawakenews.com/2015/09/04/family-near-area-51-fights-back-after-government-tries-to-confiscate-property/




  1. pookie

    pookie 731 days ago Permalink

    “But how is this legal plunder to be identified? Quite simply. See if the law takes from some persons what belongs to them and gives it to other persons to whom it does not belong. See if the law benefits one citizen at the expense of another by doing what the citizen himself cannot do without committing a crime.”

    . . .

    “As long as it is admitted that the law may be diverted from its true purpose--that it may violate property instead of protecting it--then everyone will want to participate in making the law, either to protect himself against plunder or to use it for plunder.”

    ― Frédéric Bastiat, The Law (1850)

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